P-adic Numbers in Number Theory
📂Number TheoryP-adic Numbers in Number Theory
Definition
A p-adic valuation for a prime number p and an integer a∈Z is defined as follows with respect to vp and is represented as a of p-adic valuation.
vp(a):=sup{e∈Z:pe∣a}
Theorem
- [0]: For every prime number p
vp(0)=∞
- [1]: vp(xy)=vp(x)+vp(y)
- [2]: vp(x+y)≥min{vp(x),vp(y)}
- [3]: If n∈N, x,y∈Z, and prime number p is
gcd(n,p)=1p∣(x∓y)p∤xp∤y
then
vp(xn±yn)=vp(x±y)
- [4]: If x,y∈Z, prime number p=2 is
p∣(x−y)p∤xp∤y
then
vp(xp−yp)=vp(x−y)+1
- b∣a represents that b is a divisor of a.
- The term valuation means assigning a value, which could be directly translated into Korean as 값매김, but since both terms are somewhat lacking, it is recommended to use the English term Valuation.
Description
When I was taking an undergraduate course in cryptography, I noticed that the textbook used the form of quotient ring rather than the ring of integers modulo p, and I asked the professor why. He answered that it was to differentiate it from the research on p-adic numbers, which is a major branch in number theory. Studying the p-adic numbers might as well be opening a big curtain in the field of number theory.
Simply put, a p-adic valuation of a given natural number is nothing but looking at how many powers of p are multiplied. For example, for a prime number p=3, the 3-adic valuation of 63=32⋅71 is v3(63)=2, and v7(63)=1. On the other hand, for invisible numbers when factoring, for example, the 2-adic valuation is trivially 20∣63, so it’s v2(63)=0.
Proof
[0]
The fact that b is a divisor of a, that is, b∣a, means that there exists an integer k∈Z that satisfies ak=b. For all e∈Z, there exists k=0 that satisfies pe⋅k=0, so sup{e∈Z:pe∣0}=∞.
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[1]
vp(a) is counting the power of p in a, so naturally vp(xy)=vp(x)+vp(y) holds.
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[2]
Let’s represent some X,Y∈ as the following for x,y.
x:=pvp(x)Xy:=pvp(y)Y
Without losing generality, if we set it as vp(x)≥vp(y), then
x+y=pvp(y)(pvp(x)−vp(y)X+Y)
Therefore, we obtain at least vp(x+y)≥vp(y).
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[3]
Part 1.
If we factorize xn−yn,
xn−yn=(x−y)(xn−1+xn−2y+⋯xyn−2+yn−1)
According to the definition of vp, unless the second factor ∑t=0n−1x(n−1)−tyt includes p as a divisor, vp(xn−yn) or vp(x−y) are the same. Writing this as an equation gives us:
vp(xn−yn)=vp(x−y)
Part 2. vp(xn−yn)=vp(x−y)
Since we assume p∣(x−y), we have x−y≡0(modp), namely x≡y(modp), so
t=0∑n−1x(n−1)−tyt≡≡t=0∑n−1x(n−1)−txtn⋅xn−1(modp)
However, assuming p∤x and gcd(n,p)=1 gives
t=0∑n−1x(n−1)−tyt≡0(modp)
Therefore, we obtain the following:
vp(xn−yn)=vp(x−y)
Part 3. vp(xn+yn)=vp(x+y)
It does not go beyond a change in sign from the equation obtained in Part 2. Substituting −y instead of y gives
vp(xn−(−y)n)=vp(x−(−y))
Thus, the following is obtained:
vp(xn+yn)=vp(x+y)
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[4]
Part 1.
vp(xp−yp)=vp(x−y)+1
This means that when you factorize (x−y) and (xp−yp), p is exactly added by 1. To demonstrate this, let’s factorize xp−yp in the same manner as in Proof [3].
xp−yp=(x−y)(xp−1+xp−2y+⋯xyp−2+yp−1)
That p is exactly multiplied by 1 means the second factor ∑t=0p−1x(p−1)−tyt appears as a multiple of p but not as a multiple of p2.
p∣t=0∑p−1x(p−1)−tytp2∤t=0∑p−1x(p−1)−tyt
Part 2. p∣∑t=0p−1x(p−1)−tyt
Since we assume p∣(x−y), we have x−y≡0(modp), namely x≡y(modp), so
t=0∑p−1x(p−1)−tyt≡≡≡t=0∑p−1x(p−1)−txtp⋅xp−10(modp)
Therefore, it’s p∣∑t=0p−1x(p−1)−tyt.
Part 3. p2∤∑t=0p−1x(p−1)−tyt
Since it’s x≡y(modp), any k∈Z can be set as y=x+kp. Fixing the index as t=1,⋯,p−1 and expanding x(p−1)−tyt over x gives us in (modp2)
x(p−1)−tyt≡≡≡≡x(p−1)−t(x+kp)tx(p−1)−t(xt+txt−1kp+2t(t−1)xt−2k2⋅p2+⋯)x(p−1)−t(xt+txt−1kp)+O(p2)xp−1+tkpxp−2(modp2)
Returning to the original series gives
t=0∑p−1x(p−1)−tyt≡≡≡≡≡t=0∑p−1[xp−1+tkpxp−2]pxp−1+2p(p−1)kpxp−2pxp−1+2p−1kxp−2⋅p2pxp−1(modp2)0(modp2)
Therefore, it’s p2∣∑t=0p−1x(p−1)−tyt.
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