Proof of Bernoulli's Inequality
📂LemmasProof of Bernoulli's Inequality
Theorem
If we call it α>0, for all x∈[−1,∞), the following two inequalities hold:
- [1]: α∈(0,1]⟹(1+x)α≤1+αx
- [2] α∈(1,∞]⟹(1+x)α≥1+αx
Explanation
Looking closely at the shape of the inequalities, although it depends on the size of α, one side involves multiplication and the other involves exponentiation. Of course, depending on the conditions, being able to switch one uncomfortable calculation to a preferred side is very good.
Proof
Strategy: It’s almost over just by using the mean value theorem. The proof of [2] is **omitted since it is almost the same as [1].
[1]
If the function f:[−1,∞)→R is defined as f(t):=tα, then f’(t)=αtα−1. By the mean value theorem, there exists c between 1 and 1+x that satisfies
f(1+x)−f(1)=αxcα−1
Case 1. 0<x
Since c∈(1,1+x), it follows that c>1 and since α−1≤0
cα−1≤1
Multiplying both sides by x>0, we get
xcα−1≤x
Case 2. −1≤x≤0
Since c∈(1+x,1), it follows that c≤1 and since α−1≤0
cα−1≥1
Multiplying both sides by x≤0, we get
xcα−1≤x
In any case, according to (1),
(1+x)α==≤=f(1+x)f(1)+αxcα−1f(1)+αx1+αx
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Meanwhile, for all x>0, since 1+x<ex, we obtain the following corollary for e∈[1,∞).
Corollary
(1+x)α≤exα