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Every Finite-Dimensional Normed Space Has a Basis 📂Banach Space

Every Finite-Dimensional Normed Space Has a Basis

Theorem 1

Every finite-dimensional norm space has a basis.

Description

It might be unfamiliar to announce the existence of a basis not under specific conditions, but actually, the definition of a basis never stated that every vector space has a basis. Depending on how one defines finite dimensionality, it can also be a fact so obvious that it requires no separate proof.

Proof

Strategy: Use the fact that the space is finite-dimensional to explicitly construct a basis.


(X,)(X, | \cdot | ) is finite-dimensional, so there exists span{x1,,xn}=X\text{span} \left\{ x_{1} , \dots , x_{n} \right\} = X that satisfies {x1,,xn}\left\{x_{1} , \dots , x_{n} \right\}. Let’s say y1:=x1y_{1} : = x_{1}. If x2span{y1}x_{2} \in \text{span} \left\{ y_{1} \right\} then consider x3x_{3}. If x2span{y1}x_{2} \notin \text{span} \left\{ y_{1} \right\}, let y2:=x2y_{2} := x_{2}. If x3span{y1,y2}x_{3} \in \text{span} \left\{ y_{1}, y_{2} \right\}, then consider x4x_{4}. If x3span{y1,y2}x_{3} \notin \text{span} \left\{ y_{1}, y_{2} \right\}, let y3:=x3y_{3} := x_{3}. In this way, by defining M={y1,,yk}M = \left\{ y_{1} , \dots , y_{k} \right\}, for 1jk1 \le j \le k

yjspan{y1,,yj1} y_{j} \notin \text{span} \left\{ y_{1} , \dots , y_{j-1} \right\}

If we assume that MM is not linearly independent, for some λj0\lambda_{j} \ne 0s

λ1y1++λkyk=0 \lambda_{1} y_{1} + \dots + \lambda_{k} y_{k} = 0

Among such jjs, let the largest jj be j0j_{0}.

yj0=1λj0j<j0λjyj1λj0j>j0λjyj=1λj0j<j0λjyj y_{j_{0}} = - {{1} \over { \lambda_{j_{0}} }} \sum_{j < j_{0}} \lambda_{j} y_{j} - {{1} \over { \lambda_{j_{0}} }} \sum_{j > j_{0}} \lambda_{j} y_{j} = - {{1} \over { \lambda_{j_{0}} }} \sum_{j < j_{0}} \lambda_{j} y_{j}

Therefore, yj0=1λj0j<j0λjyjspan{y1,,yj01}\displaystyle y_{j_{0}} = - {{1} \over { \lambda_{j_{0}} }} \sum_{j < j_{0}} \lambda_{j} y_{j} \in \text{span} \left\{ y_{1} , \dots , y_{j_{0}-1} \right\}, which is a contradiction. Since M{x1,,xn}M \subset \left\{ x_{1} , \dots , x_{n} \right\} is linearly independent and satisfies spanM=X\text{span} M = X, MM becomes a basis of XX.

By examining the proof process, it can be seen that {x1,,xn}\left\{ x_{1} , \dots , x_{n} \right\} comfortably generates XX. By discarding what hinders being linearly independent and taking only MM, it explicitly shows that it is a basis.


  1. Kreyszig. (1989). Introductory Functional Analysis with Applications: p55. ↩︎